Kost et al. 2001 (cited on the guide) reports both peptides can inhibit enkephalin-degrading enzymes in serum assays; clinical meaning is uncertain. How much weight do you put on that shared biochemical footnote when choosing between them—or is clinical framing in Russian psychiatry/neurology more decisive for you? Curious, sourced takes welcome.
Shared enkephalinase chatter—useful clue or overfit mechanism?
Semax Hub · Sep 29, 2026
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